This problem arose in trying to establish that $$f(x)=\sum_{k=0}^\infty\frac{kx}{1+k^4x^2}$$ is uniformly convergent on $[a,\infty), a>0$, and I thought I could do this, as I was able to show that since $\displaystyle\sup_{x\in\mathbb{R}}\left\{\displaystyle\frac{kx}{1+k^4x^2}\right\}=\displaystyle\frac{1}{2k}$ then this is uniform convergent if:
$$\lim_{n\to\infty}\sum_{k=n+1}^\infty\frac{1}{2k} =0$$
But the above limit doesn't make sense to me ... is it even defined? - I suspected not, so where should I go from here?

This limit isn't defined, and the series doesn't converge uniformly on $\mathbb R$.
On $[a, \infty)$, though, (assuming $k > 0$) we have $\frac{kx}{1 + k^4 x^2} = \frac{k}{1 / x + k^4 x} < \frac{1}{k^3 a}$, and series $\sum\limits_{k=1}^\infty \frac{1}{k^3 a}$ converges.