Uniform convergence of $\sum_{n=1}^{\infty}(-1)^{n-1}\frac{x^2}{(1+x^2)^n}$ in $\mathbb{R}$
Using Dirichlet Test, it can be shown that the it uniformly converges for $\mathbb{R}$ \ $\{0\}$.
In $x=0$ there is obviously a pointwise convergence to 0.
However, I'm struggling to make a conclusion for $\mathbb{R}$.
If you could help me find a conclusion or provide another direction, it would be appreciated.
In short: here, you shouldn't have to worry about $0$ in the first place.
When you apply the Dirichlet test, take $$ a_n(x) = (-1)^{n-1}, \qquad b_n(x) = \frac{x^2}{(1+x^2)^n} $$ for $x\in\mathbb{R}$ and $n\geq 1$. Then
For $M\stackrel{\rm def}{=} 1$, we have $$ \left\lvert \sum_{n=1}^N a_n(x) \right\rvert \leq M $$ for all $N\geq 1$ and $x\in\mathbb{R}$.
For all $x\in\mathbb{R}$ and $n\geq 1$, $$ b_n(x) \geq b_{n+1}(x) $$
$\lim_{n\to\infty }\lVert b_n\rVert_\infty = 0$ (uniform convergence of $b_n$ to $0$)
Therefore, the (Uniform) Dirichlet test guarantees that the series $$ \sum_{n=1}^\infty a_n(x)b_n(x) = \sum_{n=1}^\infty (-1)^{n-1} \frac{x^2}{(1+x^2)^n} $$ converges uniformly on $\mathbb{R}$.