how prove uniform convergence : $$x\in (0,+\infty) \\ \sum_{n\ge 0} \ln(1+e^{-nx})$$
we have : $$\ln(1+e^{-nx}) \le e^{-nx}$$
and series :$\sum_{n\ge 0} e^{-nx} $ converge (série géométrique) so:series $\sum_{n\ge 0} \ln(1+e^{-nx})$ Uniform convergence
that is Corect or Not ?
if not correct . How prove Uniforme convergence .
No, your argument is not correct. You are right that $$ 0 \le \ln(1+e^{-nx}) \le e^{-nx} $$ for all $x$ and $n$, and that $\sum_n e^{-nx}$ converges for all $x$, but that does not prove the uniform convergence. You probably want to apply the Weierstrass M-test, but for that you need a sequence $M_n$ with $$ 0 \le \ln(1+e^{-nx}) \le M_n $$ and $\sum_n M_n < \infty$. The important point is that the bound $M_n$ does not depend on $x$.
Actually the series is not uniformly convergent. With $f_n(x) = \ln(1+e^{-nx})$ we have $$ f_n(1/n) = \ln(1+1/e) > 0 $$ so that $(f_n)$ does not uniformly converge to zero. Consequently, $\sum_n f_n(x)$ is not uniformly convergent.