Let $(M_t,\mathcal{F}_t)_{t\geq 0}$ be a martingale with continuous paths and $(\tau_k)_{k\geq 0}$ stopping times. Hence we know that $M_{t\wedge\tau_k}=\mathbb{E}[M_t|\ \mathcal{F}_{t\wedge\tau_k}]$.
Why is $(M_{t\wedge\tau_k},\mathcal{F}_{t\wedge\tau_k})_{k\geq 1}$ a uniformly integrable martingale?
Thanks for any help!
A more general result solves this problem right away.
Now take $X$ to be $M_t$, which is $L^1(P)$ by definition of a martingale, in the result above.