Consider a sequence of functions, $(f_n(x))=ne^{-nx^2}$.
I think the uniform norm is $ne^{-n}$, but according to my solution, it is $n$.
Why is this the case? Don't we just take out the $x$ for the uniform norm of sequences of functions?
Consider a sequence of functions, $(f_n(x))=ne^{-nx^2}$.
I think the uniform norm is $ne^{-n}$, but according to my solution, it is $n$.
Why is this the case? Don't we just take out the $x$ for the uniform norm of sequences of functions?
The uniform norm is usually defined by
$$\|f\| = \sup_{x \in \mathbb{R}} |f(x)|$$
Now for $x \ne 0$, $0 < e^{-nx^2} < 1$, so $f_n$ attains its maximum at $0$, and the maximum is $n$.