The q-Pochhammer symbol $[n]_q!$ is defined as $$[n]_q! = \frac{(1-q^n)(1-q^{n-1})\cdots(1-q)}{(1-q)^n} = (1+q) (1+q+q^2) \cdots (1+q+\cdots+q^{n-1})$$
It can be easily shown that $[n]_q!$ (function of indeterminate $q$) is symmetric and unimodal, since it is the product of symmetric and unimodal sequences.
The q-binomial coefficient is defined similarly as, $${n \choose k}_q = \frac{[n]_q!}{[k]_q![{n-k}]_q!}$$
It can be easily seen that ${n \choose k}_q$ is a polynomial in $q$ (and not a rational polynomial in $q$) from the recurrence relation
$${n \choose k}_q = q^k {{n-1} \choose k}_q + {{n-1} \choose {k-1}}_q $$
Can somebody show me an easy way to prove that ${n \choose k}_q$ is also symmetric and unimodal?
Edit: A polynomial in indeterminate $x$, F(x) = $\sum_{i=0}^n a_i x^i$ is defined to be symmetric when the sequence $\{a_i\}_{i=0}^n$ is unimodal and symmetric. The sequence $\{a_i\}_{i=0}^n$ is defined to be unimodal and symmetric if -
$$a_0 \leq a_1 \leq .... \leq a_{\lfloor{n/2}\rfloor}$$
and $$a_k = a_{n-k}$$
Now for ${n \choose k}_q = F(q)$, we have $F(q) = q^{{(nk-k^2)}} F(1/q)$ therefore, $F(q)$ must be symmetric (in the above sense). How do I show it to be unimodal?
The symmetry ${n \choose k}_q = {n \choose n-k}_q$ follows immediately from the formula ${n \choose k} = [n]_q! \bigl/ \bigl([k]_q! [n-k]_q!\bigr)\bigr.$. Unimodality for all $q>0$ follows from the fact that $\bigl\{{n \choose k}_q\bigr\}_{k=0}^n$ is log-concave: $$ {n \choose k}_q^2 > {n \choose k-1}_q \,{n \choose k+1}_q $$ (all $k=1,2,\ldots,n-1$), which in turn follows from the fact that the sequence $\{[n]_q!\}_{n=0}^\infty$ is log-convex (i.e. $[n]_q^2 < [n-1]_q [n+1]_q$ for all $n>0$). Both of these generalize proofs for classical binomial coefficients ${n \choose k} = n! / (k! (n-k)!)$.