I'm given the following definition asked to prove the following theorem:
Definition: Let $X$ be a set and suppose $C$ is a collection of subsets of $X$. Then $\cup \mathbf{C}=\{x \in X : \exists C\in \mathbf{C}(x\in C)\}$
Theorem: Let $\mathbf{C,D}$ be collections of subsets of a set $X$. Prove that $\cup ( \mathbf{C} \cup \mathbf{D}) = (\cup \mathbf{C}) \cup (\cup\mathbf{D})$
By my reading of the definition, I run into two problems:
Firstly I think there is a type error since $ ( \mathbf{C} \cup \mathbf{D}) = \cup\{\mathbf{C}, \mathbf{D}\}$ is not a collection of subsets of $X$ (i.e. it is not a set whose elements are subsets of $X$); instead it is a set whose elements are collections of subsets of $X$.
Second, if we ignore the type error and plug into the definition, we get: $\cup \{\mathbf{C}, \mathbf{D}\} =\{x\in X:\exists C\in \{\mathbf{C}, \mathbf{D}\}(x\in C)\}=\{x\in X:x\in \mathbf{C} \lor x \in \mathbf{D}\}$, however, since $\boldsymbol{C},\boldsymbol{D}$ are collections, all their elements are sets. Since $x$ is not a set, $x\notin\boldsymbol{C}\land x\notin\boldsymbol{D}$. Thus $\cup \{\mathbf{C}, \mathbf{D}\}=\emptyset$
However this can't be right since the other side of the equality; $(\cup \mathbf{C}) \cup (\cup\mathbf{D})\neq \emptyset$ in general. What am I missing?
Essential are the points:
On your first point:
$\mathbf C$ and $\mathbf D$ are collections of subsets of $X$.
Then $\{\mathbf C,\mathbf D\}$ is a set whose elements are collections of subsets of $X$.
Consequently $\cup\{\mathbf C,\mathbf D\}$ is a set whose elements are subsets of $X$, because: $$x\in\cup\{\mathbf C,\mathbf D\}\text{ iff }x\in\mathbf C\text{ or }x\in\mathbf D$$
It must be proved that: $$\cup(\mathbf C\cup\mathbf D=(\cup\mathbf C)\cup(\cup\mathbf D)$$ or equivalently that: $$\cup\cup\{\mathbf C,\mathbf D\}=\cup\{\cup\mathbf C,\cup\mathbf D\}\tag1$$
Equivalent are the following statements:
This proves $(1)$