Let $G=\Bbb Z/n \Bbb Z$ and assume $d\mid n$.
There exists a unique subgroup of $G$ of order $d$.
The mod $n$ reduction of $n/d\in \Bbb Z$ generates a $d$ element subgroup of $\Bbb Z/n\Bbb Z$, so that takes care of existence.
What about uniqueness?
If $H\leq G$ is any subgroup of order $d$, then $G/H$ has order $n/d$, right? What result did I use here?
In particular $n/d\cdot g\in G/H$ is trivial, so $n/d\cdot g\in H$ for $g\in G$. Taking $g=1$ we have $n/d\in H$ and there are $d$ multiples of this in $H$, so $H$ is the same group as above. Does this argument work?
Consider the canonical map $\pi\colon\mathbb{Z}\to G=\mathbb{Z}/n\mathbb{Z}$ and let $d$ be a divisor of $n$; set $n=dk$.
Existence. Consider the subgroup $k\mathbb{Z}$. Then $\pi(k\mathbb{Z})$ is a subgroup of $G$ and it has $d$ elements (prove it).
Uniqueness. Suppose $H$ is a subgroup of $G$ having $d$ elements; then $\pi^{-1}(H)$ is a subgroup of $\mathbb{Z}$ containing $n\mathbb{Z}$; it's easy to see that necessarily $\pi^{-1}(H)=k\mathbb{Z}$.