I know that if $B$ is a basis for $\mathbf V$, there exist unique scalars $\alpha_1, \dots , \alpha_n$ with the desired property I wonder if the reverse proposition(vice versa proposition) is also true.
Can you show the proof that the reverse proposition(vice versa proposition) is also true?

If there exists unique scalars for each $v$ such that $v=\alpha_1v_1+\cdots+\alpha_nv_n$, then the only scalars for $v=0$ are $\alpha _1=\cdots =\alpha_n=0$. Thus the $v_1,\dots,v_n$ are linearly independent.