Recently I was asked about the uniqueness of the solutions of the equation $y'=y$. It could be obtained by multiply $e^{-x}$.
This time I was wondering about the same question regarding a different equation. We know that the solutions of $y''+y=0$ are of the form $a\sin(x)+b\cos(x) $.
How can we explain that these are the ONLY solutions?
You can also solve it easily
$$y''=-y$$ for $y \neq 0$ $$ \frac {y''}{y}=-1$$ $$ \left (\frac {y'}{y} \right)'+\left( \frac {y'}{y}\right )^2=-1$$ Substitute $z=\frac {y'}y$ $$z'+z^2=-1$$ That's separable $$\int \frac {dz}{z^2+1}=-x+K \implies \arctan(z)=K-x $$ $$y'=y\tan (K-x)$$ $$y'\cos(K-x)-y\sin(K-x)=0$$ $$y=C_1\cos(x+C_2)$$