If we take $a+b\sqrt2\in\mathbb{Z[\sqrt2]}$ such that this is a unit, is it necessary therefore that $1$ is the highest common divisor of both $a$ and $b$?
Is there a way to approach this question straight from definition of unit? Or in other words, not from the perspective of norms etc?
Suppose that $a + b\sqrt{2}$ is a unit. Let $c + d\sqrt{2}$ be its inverse. (Where $c$ and $d$ are some integers.)
Then, we have $$(a + b\sqrt{2})(c+d\sqrt{2}) = 1$$ or $$(ac + 2bd) + (ad + bc)\sqrt{2} = 1.$$
As $\sqrt{2}$ and $1$ are indepdendent over $\mathbb{Q}$, we get that $ac + 2bd = 1$ and $ad + bc = 0$. The latter is not important.
Now, note that if $p \in \mathbb{Z}$ is a common divisor of $a$ and $b$, then $p$ must divide $ac + 2bd = 1.$ This forces $p \in \{1, -1\}$.