I came across the fact that the rank of a $n \times n$-matrix A with $A^2=0$ is at most $\frac{n}{2}$. The easiest way to proof this is using the inequality $\operatorname{rank}(A)+\operatorname{rank}(B)-n\leqslant\operatorname{rank}(AB)$. With $A=B$ and $A^2=0$, this immediately yields $\operatorname{rank}(A)\leqslant\frac{n}{2}$
Can this result be generalized? What is the upper bound for the rank of a $n\times n$-matrix $A$ with the property $A^k=0$?
Additional question : Is the above bound for $k = 2$ sharp? In other words, is there a $n \times n$ matrix $A$ with $\operatorname{rank}\left\lfloor\frac{n}{2}\right\rfloor$ and $A^2=0\;\forall n\in\mathbb N$?
The inequality generalises easily to $$ \sum_{j=1}^k\mbox{rank}(A_j)\leq \mbox{rank}\left(\prod_{j=1}^k A_j\right)+n(k-1). $$ In particular, if $A^k=0$, $\mbox{rank}(A)\leq \frac{n(k-1)}{k}$.