Definition: $a\in \Bbb Z$ is a perfect square if there is a $b\in\Bbb Z$ and $a = b^2$
To prove: if $m$ and $n$ are perfect squares, then $mn$ is a perfect square.
I know that this can most easily be proved with a direct proof. I want to prove this using contrapositive. Is the below valid, and if not, what would be? Also, tips on correctness of how I wrote it would be appreciated.
Proof: by contrapositive
Assume $mn$ is not a perfect square. Let $b$, $c$ $\in \Bbb Z$ where $m \ne b^2$, $n \ne c^2$. Then $mn \ne b^2c^2 \ne (bc)^2$. QED.
Using here the contrapositive of $p \wedge q \Rightarrow r$ which is $\sim r \Rightarrow \sim(p \wedge q) \equiv (\sim p) \vee (\sim q) $. We have
If $mn$ is not a perfect square then either $m$ is not a perfect square or $n$ is not a perfect square.