I saw some similar questions and answers but they often included some information or mathematics I haven't learned/read so I'm hoping to get a somewhat simpler answer.
Let $\beta:[a,b] \to \mathbb{R}^3$ be a smooth curve. So the three component functions of $\beta(t)$ are all smooth. Let $p = \beta(a)$ and $q=\beta(b)$. Show that for some function $f:\mathbb{R}^3 \to \mathbb{R}$,
$$\int_{a}^{b} \beta^*df=f(q)-f(p)$$
$\beta^*df$ is the pullback though I'm not so sure what sort of a differential form $df$ is. Now, $\beta^*df=d(\beta^*f)=d(f \circ \beta)$ but I'm not sure where to go from here. I suspect there is a chain rule though.
Thank you in advance.
Chain rule is not needed. Using
$$\beta^* df = d(f\circ \beta) = (f\circ \beta)'(t)dt,$$
we have
$$\int_a^b \beta ^* df = \int_a^b (f\circ \beta)'(t) dt = (f\circ \beta) (b) - (f\circ \beta)(a) = f(q) - f(p).$$