Say we have $A=B$
iff $\forall x (x \in A \Rightarrow x \in B$) and $\forall y (y \in B \Rightarrow y \in A$)
can we write the above as: $\forall x [(x \in A \Rightarrow x \in B$) and $(x \in B \Rightarrow x \in A$)] if so, why? I don't really understand equivalent formulations of these statements.
See rules for prenex operations.
But for the question above, we have to use the rules for "distributing" quantifiers :
Thus, $∀x(x∈A \Rightarrow x∈B) \land ∀y(y∈B \Rightarrow y∈A)$ is equivalent to :
and this, in turn, is equivalent to :