Use the Schröder-Bernstein theorem to show that $(0,1)\subseteq \Bbb R$ and $[0,1]\subseteq\Bbb R$ have the same cardinality.
Firstly I'm not even entirely sure about what the syntax even means. The elements of subset (0,1) and [0,1] are also included in the set of all real numbers? And [0,1] doesn't include 0 and 1 but (0,1) does? Even when I understand the syntax I probably won't know how to solve it
$(0,1) \subset [0,1]$ so $|(0,1)| \le |[0,1]|$.
Using the bijection $\phi(x) = \frac{1}{4}+\frac{1}{2} x$, we see that $|[0,1]| = |[\frac{1}{4},\frac{3}{4}]|$, and since $[\frac{1}{4},\frac{3}{4}] \subset (0,1)$ we have $|[0,1]| = |[\frac{1}{4},\frac{3}{4}]| \le |(0,1)|$.
Hence, using the Bieber-Cantor–Bernstein–Schröder-Heimlich-Presley theorem we have $|(0,1)| =|[0,1]|$.