I am struggling to understand this relationship between sequences/subsequences/limits.
I posted a question here, read the Wiki here, saw this other MSE answer here, and even read this page here. Despite all this I am simply not even getting this concept even a little bit. It's all so dense and abstract and I simply can't make heads or tails of it.
I don't understand how this concept is used, how it works, what it illustrates, what it may or may not prove, etc.
Is this technique mainly to check if a limit does or does not converge to something? Do we need to know what that something is? Or is it a general check for non-convergence? How does it work? Are there any easily understood examples? I feel like I need a really dumbed-down explanation for this because I am simply not getting any of it.
Let consider for simplicity at first the case of sequences with finite limit L.
By the definition of limit, we say that
$$n\to +\infty \quad a_n\to L$$
when
$$\forall \epsilon>0 \quad \exists \bar n \quad\text{such that}\quad \forall n>\bar n \quad |a_n-L|<\epsilon$$
Now the key point is that if the limit exists, for a fixed $\epsilon >0$, it does not matter how we choose $n\to+\infty$ for $n>\bar n$, the condition $|a_n-L|<\epsilon$ will always be satisfied in the sense that $a_n$ will approach the limit L.
Hence when limit exists you cannot find subsequences of $a_n$ with a different limit.
Therefore you can use this fact to prove that a sequence has not limit by finding at least 2 subsequences with different limit. If you can do it, it follows that the given sequence has not limit.
The same argument can be easily generalized to the infinite limit $L=\pm\infty$ of sequence and to the limit of functions.
EDIT
Question: How do we prove that if there exist two subsequences of $a_n$ with different limits, then $|a_n−L|<\varepsilon$ won't always be true?
Suppose you find two subsequences $a_{f(n)}$ and $a_{g(n)}$ such that
$$a_{f(n)}\to L_f \quad a_{g(n)}\to L_g$$
then if we set
$$\varepsilon=\frac{|L_f-L_g|}{3}$$
by definition of limit for the two subsequences we can find
$$\bar n_f\quad\text{such that}\quad \forall n>\bar n_f \quad |a_{n_f}-L_f|<\epsilon$$
$$\bar n_g\quad\text{such that}\quad \forall n>\bar n_g \quad |a_{n_g}-L_g|<\epsilon$$
thus exists
$$\bar n=\max\{ n_f, n_g\}\quad\text{such that}\quad \forall n>\bar n \quad \implies |a_{n_f}-L_f|<\epsilon \quad \land \quad|a_{n_g}-L_g|<\epsilon $$
with
$$(L_f-\varepsilon,L_f+\varepsilon)\cap(L_g-\varepsilon,L_g+\varepsilon)=\emptyset$$
which is in not consistent with the definition of limit for $a_n$.