Say I have two finite-dimensional vector spaces $V$ and $W$. I know that the two are isomorphic. I also know a basis for $W$.
I claim a basis for $V$. In order to show that this indeed is a basis for $V$, is it enough to show that there exists a bijection between the claimed basis for $V$ and the basis for $W$ ?
Thanks!
First result:
Second result:
Third result:
We may now tackle the given problem.
Since $W$ and $V$ are isomorphic, we conclude that $\dim V = \dim W$. Let us consider a basis $\mathcal{B}_{W} = \{w_{1},w_{2},\ldots,w_{n}\}$ for $W$. Since $T:W\rightarrow V$ is injective, $T(\mathcal{B}_{W}) = \{T(w_{1}),T(w_{2}),\ldots,T(w_{n})\}$ is LI. But we know that $\dim V = n$. Consequently, $\mathcal{B}_{V} = \{T(w_{1}),T(w_{2}),\ldots,T(w_{n})\}$ is a basis for $V$.
Hopefully this helps.