valid consequence model

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I just can't wrap my head around why this statement does not hold:

∃x∃yRxy ⊨ ∃x∃yRyx

Let D = {1, 2} and Let I(R) = {(1,2)}

M ⊨ ∃x∃yRxy = 1, since some x(1) has some y(2) such that (x,y) ∈ I(R)

But in my eyes:

M ⊨ ∃x∃yRyx = 1, since some x(2) has some y(1) such that (y,x) ∈ I(R)

Or does this not hold because I(R) = x,y so:

M ⊨ ∃x∃yRyx = 0, since some x(1) has some y(2) such that (y,x) ∈ I(R)