If I say $\exists x\in \mathbb{N} $ such that $\forall y \in \mathbb{N},$ $x \leq y$, this is a true statement. I am assuming that the set of natural numbers is defined for $0\leq x < \infty $.
But if I say the same thing for the set of all integers: $\exists x\in \mathbb{Z} $ such that $\forall y \in \mathbb{Z},$ $x \leq y$ is a false statement, and I need help with my wording here: It is false because there does not exist an integer $x$ such that there are no integers less than $x$.
Am I correct in my logic here?
-- Ted (in a comment).