I would like to evaluate the value of this integral: $$I=\int_{0}^{1}\dfrac{\log x}{1-x}dx.$$
On one hand, I proceed using integration by parts as follows: $$I=\int_{0}^{1}f(x)g'(x)dx,$$ where $f(x)=\log x$ and $g'(x)=\dfrac{1}{1-x}$. From this, I can write: $f'(x)=\dfrac{1}{x}$ and $g(x)=-\log(1-x)$.
Therefore: $$\begin{equation}\begin{split}I=\int_{0}^{1}f(x)g'(x)dx&=\left[f(x)g(x)\right]_{0}^{1}-\int_{0}^{1}f'(x)g(x)dx,\\&=\left[-\log(1-x)\log x\right]_{0}^{1}+\int_{0}^{1}\dfrac{\log(1-x)}{x}dx,\\&=\int_{0}^{1}\dfrac{\log(1-x)}{x}dx\\&=-\int_{0}^{1}\dfrac{\log(t)}{1-t}dt\\&=-I.\end{split}\end{equation}$$
Hence, $I=0.$
On the other hand, Wolframalpha gives $I=-\dfrac{\pi^2}{6}.$
After integrating by parts, use the power series for $\log(1-x)$:
$$\int_{0}^{1}\frac{\log(1-x)}{x}dx = -\int_{0}^{1}\sum_{k=1}^{\infty}\frac{x^{k-1}}{k}dx\\=-\sum_{k=1}^{\infty}\int_{0}^{1}\frac{x^{k-1}}{k}dx=-\sum_{k=1}^{\infty}\frac{1}{k^2}=-\frac{\pi^2}{6}$$