Just wondering if these formulae are valid in classical logic:
- $\forall x \exists x (Px) \leftrightarrow \exists x (Px)$
- $\exists x \forall x (Px) \leftrightarrow \forall x (Px)$
- $\forall x (Py) \leftrightarrow Py$
- $\exists x (Py) \leftrightarrow Py$
I 'm a beginner (using Suppes'Introduction to Logic). Couldn't find any sources on this. Thanks!
See in Patrick Suppes, Introduction to Logic (1957 - Dover reprint), the recursive definition of formulas [page 52] :
Thus, according to the syntax, $Px$ is an atomic formula; so $(∃x)Px$ is a formula, and also $(x)(∃x)Px$ [i.e. $∀x∃x(Px)$] is a formula.
Now for the "meaning": of course quantifying a variable which is not present in a formula does nothing.
In formula $∃x(Px)$ there are no a free variable $x$; thus the "meaning" of $∀x∃x(Px)$ is exactly $∃x(Px)$.
How to prove it ? See BASIC RULES OF INFERENCE, page 99.
(a) Start with $∀x∃x(Px)$ and apply US :
In our case, $∃x(Px)$ has no free occurrences of $x$; thus, applying US we simply obtain $∃x(Px)$.
Thus, by Rule C.P [page 29] we may conclude with :
(b) Now consider $∃x(Px)$ and apply UG :
In our case, $∃x(Px)$ has no free occurrences of $x$; thus, $x$ is not flagged and we may apply UG to obtain $∀x∃x(Px)$.
Again by Rule C.P :
Finally, apply the definition of $\leftrightarrow$ to conclude with :
Note
The same approach, using the "existential" rules, applies to : $∃x∀x(Px)↔∀x(Px)$.