I have the following exercise: let $\Omega$ an open to $\mathbb{R}^n$, and let $v \in H^1(\Omega)$ and $u \in H^1_0(\Omega)$.
- Prove that $$ -\langle \Delta u, v \rangle_{H^{-1},H^1_0}= \displaystyle\int_{\Omega} \nabla u(x) \cdot \nabla v(x) dx $$ I don't understand how we can answer this question. I'm lost. Help me please.
Since $u$ does not have second order derivatives, you can define $\Delta u$ only in the sense of distributions, that is, you first consider $$T_u(\phi):=\int_\Omega u\phi\,dx$$ for $\phi\in C^\infty_c(\Omega)$, and then take its distributional derivatives $$\frac{\partial T_u}{\partial x_i}(\phi)=-\int_\Omega u\frac{\partial \phi}{\partial x_i}\,dx$$ and $$\frac{\partial^2 T_u}{\partial x_i^2}(\phi)=\int_\Omega u\frac{\partial^2 \phi}{\partial x_i^2}\,dx.$$ Then $$\Delta T_u(\phi)=\int_\Omega u\Delta \phi\,dx.$$ If you now integrate by parts you get $$\Delta T_u(\phi)=-\int_\Omega \nabla u\cdot\nabla \phi\,dx$$ and by Holder's inequality $$|\Delta T_u(\phi)|\le ||\nabla u||_{L^2}||\nabla \phi||_{L^2}\le ||\nabla u||_{L^2}||\phi||_{H^1}$$ This is telling you that $\Delta T_u$ is a linear continuous operator from $H^1_0(\Omega)$ (you can extend it by density of $C^\infty_c(\Omega)$ to $H^1_0(\Omega)$), and so it belongs to $H^{-1}$.