Can we express any vector $z \in \mathbb{R}^{nm}$ as the Kronecker product of elements of $x\in\mathbb{R}^n$ and $y\in\mathbb{R}^m$?
I was working a little example where $n=m=2$ and we can write the standard/natural basis of $\mathbb{R}^4$ as the Kronecker product of the standard basis for $\mathbb{R}^2$,
$$ \left[ \begin{array} \\ 1 \\ 0 \end{array} \right] \otimes \left[ \begin{array} \\ 1 \\ 0 \end{array} \right] = \begin{array}[llll] \\ [1 & 0 & 0 & 0]^\top \end{array} $$ $$ \left[ \begin{array} \\ 1 \\ 0 \end{array} \right] \otimes \left[ \begin{array} \\ 0 \\ 1 \end{array} \right] = \begin{array}[llll] \\ [0 & 1 & 0 & 0]^\top \end{array} $$ and so on. I would appreciate some insights.
The answer is no. Consider for example the case of a vector
$$V=(u,v,w,x) \in \mathbb {R^4}$$
Let us show that it isn't in general the Kronecker product of two vectors
$$(a,b), \ (c,d)\in \mathbb {R^2}$$
Indeed, identifying
$$(a,b) \otimes (c,d)=(ac,ad,bc,bd)$$
with $U$ gives the 4 conditions:
$$\begin{cases}ac&=&u\\ad&=&v\\bc&=&w\\bd&=&x\\\end{cases}$$
but this would imply that the following products are identical (to $abcd$)
$$ux=vw$$
which has no reason to hold in general.