Does the limit $$\lim_{n\to\infty}\frac{n!}{\prod_{i=1}^n(2i-1)}$$ equal zero?
I definitely think no, because, the sequence is divergent as the the sequence is equal to $\prod_{i=1}^n2i=2^nn!$, which is divergent right? On the other hand, does Cauchy theorem on limits work here?
Since $$ \prod_{i=2}^{n}(2i-2)\leq\prod_{i=1}^{n}(2i-1)\leq \prod_{i=1}^{n}2i, $$ we have $$\label{1}\tag{1} \frac{n!}{\prod_{i=1}^{n}(2i-1)}\geq \frac{n!}{\prod_{i=1}^{n}2i}=\frac{n!}{2^{n}n!}=\frac{1}{2^{n}} $$ and $$\label{2}\tag{2} \frac{n!}{\prod_{i=1}^{n}(2i-1)}\leq \frac{n!}{\prod_{i=2}^{n}(2i-2)}=\frac{n!}{\prod_{i=2}^{n}2(i-1)}=\frac{n!}{2^{n-1}(n-1)!}=\frac{n}{2^{n-1}}. $$ Since the right hand side of \eqref{1} and \eqref{2} tends to zero, the sandwich theorem implies that $$ \lim_{n\rightarrow\infty}\frac{n!}{\prod_{i=1}^{n}(2i-1)}=0. $$