Let $X$ be an arbitrary set and let {$G,*$} be a group. I need to show that the set of functions of $X$ onto $G$ where $(f*g)(x)=f(x)*g(x)$ is a group.
I know that to prove that a set is a group, the set must be closed under an associative operation, there must exist an identity for $"*"$, and for every element of $G$, there must exist an inverse with respect to $"*"$.
To prove associativity, let there exist a third element of $G$ called $h(x)$. Then $(f*g)(x)*h(x)=(f(x)*g(x))*h(x)$, and because $f,g,h$ are elements of a group, we can go further and say that $(f*g)(x)*h(x)=(f(x)*g(x))*h(x)=f(x)*(g(x)*h(x))=f(x)*(g*h)(x)$. Thus, $"*"$ is associative on the set.
To show the existence of an identity element, we know that $(f*g)(x)*e=f(x)*g(x)*e=f(x)*g(x)=(f*g)(x)$ where $e$ is the identity element. Hence, $(f*g)(x)*e=(f*g)(x)$, i.e. there exists an identity element for $"*"$ within the set.
Lastly, we show that there exists an inverse element in the set w.r.t. $"*"$. To do this, we note that because $f$ and $g$ are elements of a group, there exists inverse elements $f^{-1}$ and $g^{-1}$ in G for any $f,g$ belonging to G. Thus, $(f*g)(x)=f(x)*g(x)$ implies that: $$(f*g)(x)*g^{-1}(x)*f^{-1}(x)=f(x)*g(x)*g^{-1}(x)*f^{-1}(x)=f(x)*e*f^{-1}(x)=f(x)*f^{-1}(x)=e. $$
And by associativity, $(f*g)(x)*g^{-1}(x)*f^{-1}(x)=(f*g)(x)*(g^{-1}*f^{-1})(x)=e. $ Therefore, for every element of the set, there exists an inverse element w.r.t. $"*"$, and the set is a group. Q.E.D.
Is this a logical proof?
I do have some criticisms.
Your proof of associativity is fine. A minor, mostly stylistic quibble: you should probably have your chain of equalities start with $((f \star g) \star h)(x) = \ldots$ and end with $\ldots = (f \star (g \star h))(x)$, just so it's obvious that you're showing $(f \star g) \star h = f \star (g \star h)$.
Your proof of identity could use a little work. You have the right idea, but nowhere have you defined an identity element of your proposed group. In particular, you need a function $i : X \to G$ such that $i \star f = f \star i = f$ for all $f$. What is this function $i$? Which values does it take at the various points in $X$? It's not hard, and it's not a trick question, but it's a question that should be answered in your proof.
Similarly, in your proof of inverses, you use $f^{-1}(x)$ and $g^{-1}(x)$, but don't define what they mean. You can't introduce them assuming everyone knows what they are. You are trying to define a group, so you need to construct $f^{-1}$, based on $f$. Which values do they take at the various points in $X$? You need to define them, and show that $f \star f^{-1} = f^{-1} \star f = i$.
Good luck.