So here is my question,
Consider the $\mathbb R[X]$-module $\mathbb R[X,X^{-1}]$ i.e the $\mathbb R[x]$-module of all Laurent-Polynomials. I want to show that is module is not free i.e it has no basis.
I already feel I see the problem, since if one multiplies an element $p(x)\in\mathbb R[X^{-1}]$ with some element of the ring $\mathbb R[X]$ it is only possible to increase the degree of $p(x)$ but it is not possible to decrease it.
Moreover, I think if we I assume for contradiction that there exists a basis 0f $\mathbb R[X,X^{-1}]$ than it contains at least some reel constant $c$ as basis of $\mathbb R[X]\subset\mathbb R[X,X^{-1}]$. Then every basis has to be of the form $\{c,p_1,p_2,...\}$ where $p_i\in\mathbb R[X,X^{-1}]$ - $\mathbb R[X$] i.e is some polynomial of degree strictly less the zero. And this polynomials can not be linear independent since one can always increase the degree until it becomes again positv...?
Here is a base-free argumentation. Let us assume that $\mathbb{R}[X^{\pm 1}]$ is a free $\mathbb{R}[X]$-module then it is also projective. Let $g : \mathbb{R}[X,Y] \to \mathbb{R}[X^{\pm 1}]$ be the surjective $\mathbb{R}[X]$-algebra-homomorphism mapping $Y \mapsto X^{-1}$. Now by projectivity there is a $\mathbb{R}[X]$-module-homomorphism $f : \mathbb{R}[X^{\pm 1}] \to \mathbb{R}[X,Y]$ such that $g \circ f = id$. This leads easily to a contradiction: because of $X^n \cdot f(X^{-n}) = f(1) \in \mathbb{R}[X,Y]$ we see that $X^n$ divides $f(1)$ for all positive integers $n$ which forces $f(1)=0$. But then $X = gf(X) = X \cdot gf(1) = 0$.
Of course this argument still works if we replace $\mathbb{R}$ by any other (nonzero) commutative ring.