Despite I'm going to use an example to illustrate what I'm referring to, this pretends to be a general question about the procedure to find where a function is holomorphic.
Suppose we have
$$f(z)=\begin{cases}e^{-1/z^2} \quad z\neq 0\\ 0 \qquad\ \ \ \ z=0\end{cases}$$
We want to see if this function is holomorphic.
As far as I'm concerned, we have 2 ways to, in practise, see it:
If this function has partial derivatives everywhere except on $0$, we can find if C-R equation holds for $f(z)$. Then, everywhere where $f(z)$ satisfies this equations, the function will be holomorphic.
If it's hard (like on this example) to separate $f(z)$ in its real and imaginary part to verify that, we can verify if the function is $C^1(\Omega)$, and then we know that $\partial f/ \partial \bar{z}=0$ iff the function is holomorphic.
Am I correct? Did I leave any case? Is there another (easier) way to see that $f(z)$ is (isn't) holomorphic?
It's easier to note $e^z$ is holomorphic everywhere, and $-1/z^2$ is holomorphic on $\mathbb C\setminus\{0\}.$ Therefore the composition, $e^{-1/z^2},$ is holomorphic on $\mathbb C\setminus\{0\}.$ What happens at $0?$ There $f$ is not differentiable, or even continuous. To see this, consider $f(z)$ as $z\to 0$ along the imaginary axis.