Suppose a sequence of functions on a finite measure space is bounded in $H^1$. That is, $\lVert f_n \rVert_{H^1} \leq C$, so that $f_{n_j} \to f$ in $L^2$ for asubsequence $n_j$ and it also converge weakly in $H^1$.
If I know that $f_n \to f$ pointwise a.e., and monotonically, is it enough to conclude that $f_n \to f$ in $L^2$? That is, the whole sequence converges?
I would like to put this as a comment but my reputation is too low to do it.
To show the whole sequence convergence, we take arbitrary sub-sequence of $f_n$, say $f_{n_k}$, and use the argument provided by @fourierwho you can show that there exists a subsequence of $f_{n_k}$, say $f_{n_{k_m}}$ such that it converges in $L^2$ to a function $\bar f$.
Now, since we know that $f_n\to f$ a.e., we must have $\bar f=f$. Thus, we showed that for arbitrary subsequence of $f_n$, we always have a further sequence which convergences to $f$, the same limiting function.
Hence, you may apply the subsequence principle to conclude that the whole sequence does convergence in $L^2$ to $f$.
If you does not know subsequence principle, here it's how it works. Suppose the conclusion is not right, that is, there exits a subsequence of $f_n$ such that it does not convergence to $f$ in $L^2$. Then apply @fourierwho's argument, we have the contradiction.