On Wikipedia page about Weierstrass factorization theorem one can find a sentence which mentions a generalized version so that it should work for meromorphic functions. I mean:
We have sets of zeros and poles of function $f$. How could we use that sets to find formula for $f$.
I think that it should be in the form of quotient of two entire functions.
First, a meromorphic function in the plane is the quotient of two entire functions: Say $f$ is entire except for poles at $p_j$. Say the pole at $p_j$ has order $n_j$. There is an entire function $h$ such that $h$ has a zero of order $n_j$ at $p_j$ (and no other zeroes); in fact you can construct such a function $h$ as a product of the sort you see in the Weierstrass factorization theorem. Now all the singularities of $g=hf$ are removable, so $g$ is entire, and $f=g/h$.
I don't know precisely what factorization that Wikipedia page is referring to, but if $f=g/h$ then a factorization of $g$ plus a factorization of $h$ give a factorization of $f$. This "must" be the result they're talking about...
(And in fact we've obtained $f=e^\varphi\Pi_1/\Pi_2$, where $\Pi_2$ is a product depending only on the poles of $f$ and $\Pi_1$ is a product depending only on the zeroes of $g$, which are the same as the zeroes of $f$. So, in the strongest possible sense, we have in fact given a factorization of $f$ that depends only on the zeroes and poles of $f$.)