I am making my way through Lawrence Washington's book "Elliptic Curves - Number Theory and Cryptography" (2nd edition) and got stuck on page 200 on the following problem:
Let $E$ be an elliptic curve defined over $\mathbb{Q}$ by the equation
$y^{2}= x^{3}+Ax+B$,
where A, B are both integers and let $p$ be a prime number. Now define the set
$E_{k}:=\{(x,y)\in E\; \vert\; v_p(x)\leq -2k, v_{p}(y)\leq -3k \}\cup\{\infty\}$,
where $\infty$ denotes the neutral element of the group structure on $E$ and $v_{p}(z)$ is the $p$-adic valuation of $z$.
He defines the map
$$ \lambda: E_{1}\rightarrow \mathbb{Z}/p^{4}\mathbb{Z}$$
$$ (x,y)\mapsto p^{-1}\frac{x}{y}\;\text{ mod } p\quad \text{ if }(x,y)\in E\backslash\{\infty\}$$
$$\infty\mapsto 0.$$
I interpret this assignment as: $\lambda$ factorizes over $\mathbb{Z}$ in the canonical way.
However, Washington does not lose a word about the question, why $p^{-1}\frac{x}{y}=: t$ is an integer, and it does not seem clear to me.
Does anyone see whether or why this is the case?
Two remarks:
It is equivalent to see that $t$ is annulated by a monic polynomial with integer coefficients. One can show that in this case and if $t\neq 0$, a such polynomial needs to have degree at least 4.
I understand that the p-adic valuation of $t$ must be nonnegative.
In fact, $\lambda$ factorizes to the ring of $p$-adic integers $\mathbb{Z}_p$ (since the $p$-adic valuation of $t$ is non-negative). Then reduce mod $p^4$ and use the isomorphism
$$\mathbb{Z}_p/p^4\mathbb{Z}_p\leftarrow \mathbb{Z}/p^4\mathbb{Z}.$$
This answer may seem very elliptic so feel free to ask if you have any question.