I know the set of rational numbers can be well ordered since there exists a bijection from the set of natural numbers and then set of rational numbers by ordering $ℚ$ in this way
my question is, in this case, is $ℚ$ well ordered by the usual $<$? Same thing with the set of integers If you order them in this way: 0, 1, -1, 2, -2.. in this case the set is well ordered by the relation $<$ right? (Since there exists a bijection with the set of natural numbers)