I am trying to understand why is the well ordering principle stated as an axiom of integers.
In the process, I found a "proof" of the principle (which is obviously wrong) and want to understand where the error is.
Let $S$ be a subset of $\mathbb{N}$, let $n \in S$. Then we have :
- Either $n$ is less than every other element of $S$ and then $S$ has a least element.
- Either the above is false, then take $m$ to be least element of the finite set $S\cap [0\ldots n]$ which is necessarily non empty (because if contains at least $n$ itself) and then $m$ will be less than any element of $S$.
Where is the error? Is it the use of axiom of choice when I take "let $n \in S$"? In that case is it true that axiom of choice implies well ordering principle of integers? (I know axiom of choice implies well ordering theorem, but here i am talking about well ordering principle of integers with natural order).
May be the error is assuming that every finite subset of $\mathbb{N}$ has a least element? Thanks for help.
First you are assuming that finite sets are well ordered without question.
Which I suppose follows from the induction principle.
But really the statement: $S \cap [0.... n]$ is necessarily non-empty or else $n$ would be the least element of $S$--- is simply wrong. You might as well say or else Micky Mouse would be a bulldog, for all the logical implication I can see.
Well, maybe that was an exageration.
$[0.... n]$ contains all natural number equal or less than $n$ so if $S\cap [0...n]$ is empty then one can conclude $S$ contains only natural numbers greater than $n$.
So what?
It certainly does NOT contain $n$ (because $S\cap [0...n]$ is empty; it does NOT contain $n$) and $n$ is certainly NOT the least element of $S$ ($n$ is not eve in $S$). You could conclude $n$ is less than any and all of the elements of $S$. ....
But what does that have to do with whether $S$ has a least element or not?