I've been told that Cantor sees a relationship between the countable ordinals (Cantor's second number class) and the powerset of the natural numbers.
I've read the "Grundlagen" a few times, but can't seem to locate what he takes this relation to be.
I'm suspecting this is related to the continuum hypothesis CH, though I do not know if my suspicion is correct. Here is why I suspect that this is related to CH. According to wikipedia,
There is no set whose cardinality is strictly between that of the integers and that of the real numbers.
The |powerset of integers| = |powerset of naturals| = |reals| = $2^{\aleph_0}$.
The cardinality of the countable ordinals (the second number class) is identified with $\aleph_1$.
Cantor took $2^{\aleph_0} = \aleph_1$. Hence my suspicion.
My questions:
- Am I right that Cantor "conjectured" that the relationship between the countable ordinals and the power set of the naturals is that they are of the same cardinality?
- Am I right in my suspicion that this is (or is related to) the continuum hypothesis?
A direct answer to these questions and some commentary would be most appreciated.
Thanks
As Wikipedia says in article about Cantor:
I'll add two quotes from the book Georg Cantor: His Mathematics and Philosophy of the Infinite by Joseph Warren Dauben,
Cantor's second number class is what we would call today $\omega_1$, the smallest uncountable ordinal, which might perhaps be interesting for you in connection with this question.
p.110
p.137
EDIT: You've added clarification to your question that you would like to know this:
(1) Yes, I believe that the excerpts I provided above give sufficient support for this claim.
(2) I am used to $\aleph_1=2^{\aleph_0}$ as the usual formulation of CH. And this is the same thing as you wrote in your Question 1. However, we should be careful if we want to avoid Axiom of Choice.
If we are working in ZF, i.e. without Axiom of Choice, this formulation is not equivalent to "There is no set whose cardinality is strictly between that of the integers and that of the real numbers." The reason is that $\aleph_1$ and $2^{\aleph_0}$ can be incomparable.
The relation between these two claims (which are in ZFC both equivalent formulations of CH) is explained in detail here.