I understand that there are two solutions to $y = \sin x$, one for the case $y>0$ and $y<0$, the solutions being $(0, \arcsin(y)),(\pi-\arcsin(y),π)$ for $y>0$ and $(\pi-\arcsin(y),2\pi+\arcsin(y))$ for $y<0$.
Found that here on page 4.
I don't understand how to combine the solutions of the two cases in order to get the final distribution function of $Y$.
For $y>0$ you can write$$\Pr\{Y<y\}{=1-\Pr\{Y>y\}\\=1-\Pr\{\sin X>y\}\\=1-\Pr\{X\in( \sin^{-1}y,\pi-\sin^{-1}y)\}\\=1-{\pi-2\sin^{-1}y\over 2\pi}\\={\pi+2\sin^{-1}y\over 2\pi}}$$and for $y<0$ similarly $$\Pr\{Y<y\}={\pi+2\sin^{-1}y\over 2\pi}$$so that$$\Pr\{Y<y\}={\pi+2\sin^{-1}y\over 2\pi}\quad,\quad y\in[-1,1]$$and $$f_Y(y)={1\over \pi\sqrt{1-y^2}}\quad,\quad -1<y<1$$