I need to prove the following proposition.
If $f,g: [a,b] \rightarrow \mathbb{R}, $ $f$ is Lebesgue measurable, and $ f = g $ almost everywhere, then $g$ is Lebesgue measurable. But I do not know what exactly is almost everywhere.
I need to prove the following proposition.
If $f,g: [a,b] \rightarrow \mathbb{R}, $ $f$ is Lebesgue measurable, and $ f = g $ almost everywhere, then $g$ is Lebesgue measurable. But I do not know what exactly is almost everywhere.
This terminology is from measure theory. Two functions are said to be equal almost everywhere on $[a,b]$ if there exists a set $E\subseteq [a,b]$ of measure $0$ such that $f(x)=g(x)$ for all $x\in [a,b]\setminus E$.
How you can go about showing that if $f$ is measurable then so is $g$ depends on the definition you are using. Either way, I hope this helps!