If a set $A$ is isometric with a set $B$, does that mean there exists an isometry from $A$ to $B$? Or is it the other way around, that there exists an isometry from $B$ to $A$?
Edit: I forgot that there were multiple definitions of an isometry, but my book's definition does not require it to be surjective. Sorry about that.
The answer is yes to both questions. Any isometry is a bijection onto its range, and the inverse is also a bijection. This means that there exists an isometry such that $f(A)=B$ if and only if there exists an isometry $g$ such that $g(B)=A$.