How does the definition of integer divisibility carry over to ideals?
2026-03-26 17:33:29.1774546409
What does it mean for an ideal in the ring of integers to divide another ideal in the ring of integers?
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In the case of principal ideal domains, an ideal $I$ divides an ideal $J$ of a PID $R$ if and only if $J \subseteq I$. The intuition here is that, if $J = (a)$ and $I = (b)$,
$$ J \subseteq I \iff a \in (b) \iff a = bc \text{ for some $c \in R$} \iff b | a. $$
which matches with the idea of divisibility we already have: $(b)$ divides $(a)$ if and only if $b$ divides $a$. More generally, this concept can be carried over to Dedekind domains (in which non trivial ideals can be decomposed as product of powers of prime ideals, similar to the integers): if $I = \mathfrak{p_1}^{\alpha_1} \cdots \mathfrak{p_n}^{\alpha_n}$ and $J = \mathfrak{q_1}^{\beta_1} \cdots \mathfrak{q_n}^{\beta_n}$ with $\mathfrak{p}_i, \mathfrak{q}_j$ prime then $I$ divides $J$ if and only if each $\mathfrak{p}_i$ coincides with some $\mathfrak{q}_j$ and $\alpha_i \leq \beta_j$.