Say that I have two exam grades:
$$e_1$$
and
$$e_2$$
and that exam $e_1$ is worth $p_1$ of your grade and $p_2$ percent of your grade ($p_1 + p_2 = 1 $). If on top of that weighting I promise to cut off 10% (or $\delta$ percent) of your lowest exam, what would the resulting formula for your grade be (lets try to leave all answers between 0 and 1, don't multiply by 100 to get percent). Is the following correct:
$$e_{final} = p_1e_1(1+\delta) + p_2e_2(1-\delta)$$
assuming that $e_1$ is the largest and $e_2$ score is the lowest.
It seems that the issue with this question is that "cut-off 10% your weakest exam" is not well defined, which explains my issue with trying to understand what that meant. I thought I was well defined, but it seems that its not. Then I think the best approach for this question is to try to come up with what that statement means rigorously/precisely and justify it.
However, it seems natural that whatever answer we suggest, it should have some properties. These are some that I would expect.
- The final grade should not be more 100%
- You should not force 1 "artificially" (i.e. don't cheat to force property 1).
I know that artificially is not well defined. However, I will try to propose what it means here. Say what I proposed:
$$e_{final} = min(1, p_1e_1(1+\delta) + p_2e_2(1-\delta))$$
Personally, that way of calculating things seems like cheating because I am "forcing" the upper bound, instead of the formula just having that upper bound intrinsically. I would prefer a "re-weighting" strategy, or something like that, such that, the upper bound is natural. I apologize if I don't know how to explain what the properties I want are in a super precise way, but I tried to communicate the intuitions of what correct answer would kind of look like.
My best guess would be
$e_1(p_1+\delta)+e_2(p_2-\delta)$.