If $\lim_{x\to\infty}\frac{f(x)}{g(x)}=\infty$, then $f$ grows faster than $g$. Same if $\lim_{x\to\infty} \frac{g(x)}{f(x)} = 0$.
Would $f$ behave like $g$ if $\lim_{x\to\infty}\frac{f(x)}{g(x)} = 1$ ?
If $\lim_{x\to\infty}\frac{f(x)}{g(x)}=\infty$, then $f$ grows faster than $g$. Same if $\lim_{x\to\infty} \frac{g(x)}{f(x)} = 0$.
Would $f$ behave like $g$ if $\lim_{x\to\infty}\frac{f(x)}{g(x)} = 1$ ?
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Yes, by definition,
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