What does "mod" mean in the context of this tangent space proof in Warner?

87 Views Asked by At

I'm trying to read Frank Warner's Foundations of Differentiable Manifolds and Lie Groups and got confused with Theorem $1.17$ as some who does not have a pure mathematics background.

Let $F_m$ be the set of germs that vanish at $m$ and let $F_m^k$ be the ideal of $\tilde{F}_m,$ the set of germs which vanish at $m,$ consisting of all finite linear combinations of $k$-fold products of elements of $F_m.$

He wishes to show that $\dim (F_m / F_m^2) = \dim M$ and here's how the proof begins:

enter image description here

I'm good with the first three sentences, but have no idea what he means by the second equation. What does he mean to take the "mod" of that expression? I know that $F_m/F_m^2$ is just a quotient vector space, and I'm certain the "mod" has something to do with that. Also, how does he switch from talking about functions to germs (denoted by boldface)?

Many thanks! I suppose this might be rather obvious if I took an abstract algebra class, but I have not (nor do I have the space in my schedule!).

1

There are 1 best solutions below

1
On

Im not fully sure of what it could mean in this context, but as i have experienced it in number theory, a value lets say x, mod m is the remainder after dividing x by m.

As pointer out-by a comment on this post ive realized I have made this an answer and not a comment, as im not fully sure of what “mod” means in this case take my answer with a grain of salt.