Suppose we try to define the meaning of the Riemann integral $$\int_a^b f(x)\,dx$$ as follows; the above integral exists iff there exists a differentiable function $F$ on the interval $[a,b]$ such that $F' = f$ there, in which case we define $$\int^b_a f(x)\,dx = F(b)-F(a).$$
What goes wrong?
There are actually several problems here.
The first one is somewhat trivial, and has been discussed in other answers. There are some Riemann integrable functions that are not derivatives. Simply consider any function defined on some interval $[a,b]$ continuous everywhere except at a single point where it has a jump discontinuity. By Darboux's theorem, such functions are not derivatives. Note that we want these functions to be Riemann integrable, because a single jump in the function should not affect its integrability.
There's other problems as well. You haven't specified boundedness of the derivative. The function $f:[-1,1] \to \mathbb{R}$ given by $f(x) = x^2\sin(x^{-2})$ and $f(0) = 0$ is differentiable on $[-1,1]$, but its derivative is unbounded. In particular, for all $\delta \in (0,1)$, $f'[(-\delta, \delta)] = \mathbb{R}$. Such functions should not be Riemann integrable. There's no sense of 'area'.
But, even if the derivative is bounded, there's some quite ugly derivatives. For example, the derivative of the Volterra function is bounded, but it is discontinuous on a set of positive measure. For Riemann integrability, it's very desirable for the discontinuity set to be of measure zero. The function should not 'jump' too much; otherwise it can't be well-approximated by step functions.