I would appreciate help understanding what $\aleph_1$ is according to this definition:
If $\alpha$ is an ordinal, then $\aleph_{\alpha}$ is the unique infinite cardinal such that: $\{\kappa:\kappa\text{ is an infinite cardinal and }\kappa\lt\aleph_{\alpha}\}$ is isomorphic to $\alpha$ as a well-ordered set.
My question specifically is:
With $\alpha=1$ an ordinal ($=\{0\}$ according to von Neumann), what would the set $\{\kappa:\kappa\text{ is an infinite cardinal and }\kappa\lt\aleph_1\}$ look like?
EDIT I think I should emphasize that the aspect that especially confuses me is "isomorphic to $\alpha=1$."
Thanks
Note that $1$ is just $\{0\}$. So a well-ordered set is isomorphic to $1$ if and only if it has exactly one element.
In the case of $\aleph_1$, it is the unique transfinite cardinal $\kappa$ which has exactly one transfinite cardinal smaller than it. In other words, it would be exactly the smallest cardinal which is larger than $\aleph_0$.