Could you shed some light on this?
I am guessing it is aleph one, since one cannot pair every element of naturals with its subsets.
Could you shed some light on this?
I am guessing it is aleph one, since one cannot pair every element of naturals with its subsets.
On
We can prove that $\aleph_1\cdot\aleph_1=\aleph_1$ by defining a well-order on $\omega_1\times\omega_1$ which is order isomorphic to $\omega_1$. Now we have that: $$\aleph_1\leq\aleph_1\cdot\aleph_0\leq\aleph_1\cdot\aleph_1=\aleph_1$$
Therefore equality is all around.
Note in your argument that $\aleph_1$ need not be the cardinality of $\mathcal P(\Bbb N)$. This assumption is known as The Continuum Hypothesis and was shown to be neither provable nor refutable from the standard axioms of set theory.
If you assume the axiom of choice, the product of any two infinite cardinals is equal to the larger of the two, so yes it is $\aleph_1$.