Determine the singularities of $f(z)=\frac{1}{e^{-z}-1}+\frac{1}{z^2},\:z_0=0$.
I know tha if I take $z=2\pi k\:\:k\in\mathbb{N}$ I have a pole. In order to determine the order an answer was presented to me:
$f(z)=\frac{1}{e^{-z}-1}+\frac{1}{z^2}=\frac{z^2-1+e^{-z}}{z^2(e^{-z}-1)}\sim\frac{1}{z^2}\:\text{as}\:z\to 0$
Question:
I am not seeing how this approximation was done $\frac{z^2-1+e^{-z}}{z^2(e^{-z}-1)}\sim\frac{1}{z^2}\:\text{as}\:z\to 0$. How was it done? What is the procedure behind it?
Thanks in advance!
Since $z^2-1+e^{-z}=-z+\frac32 z^2+o(z^2)$ while $e^{-z}-1=-z+\frac12 z^2+o(z^2)$, these functions' ratio is $$\frac{-z+\frac32 z^2+o(z^2)}{-z+\frac12 z^2+o(z^2)}=\frac{1-\frac32 z+o(z)}{1-\frac12 z-o(z)}=1+o(1).$$Hence $$\frac{z^2-1+e^{-z}}{e^{-z}-1}\sim1\implies\frac{z^2-1+e^{-z}}{z^2(e^{-z}-1)}\sim\frac{1}{z^2}.$$