What is difference between $\{(x,y): x< 2 \implies y >2\}$ and $\{(x,y): y > 2 \implies x <2\}$?
Let $S_1 = \{(x,y): x< 2 \implies y >2\}$, and $S_2 = \{(x,y): y > 2 \implies x <2\}$. So $(1,3), (1,4),$ and $(1.5, 2.1)$, they are all in $S_1$ and in my opinion, it seem like they are also in $S_2$. I know that the set conditions in $S_1$ and $S_2$ are not equivalent. Also my professor said $S_1$ and $S_2$ are not the same sets. If I try to write $S_2$ in this way: $S_2 = \{(x,y): y \le 2 \implies x \ge 2\}$, will that work?

As others have stated, you must remember that an implication is true if the antecedant and consequent are both true, xor the antecedant is false. You've examined only elements that were in the former (the intersection), neglecting those in the later (the difference).
$\{(x,y): x<2\to y>2\} = \{(x,y): x<2\wedge y>2\}\cup\{(x,y): x\geq 2\}\\ \{(x,y): y>2\to x<2\} = \{(x,y): x<2\wedge y>2\}\cup\underbrace{\{(x,y): y\leq 2\}}$