This feels like something that's easy to answer, but maybe not. (For the record, this isn't homework from school, it's to settle an argument I'm having with a colleague.)
I have a random variable $X$ that's a value in $K = [0, 2^{64})$. Given that $X$ is uniformly distributed over $K$ (that is, the probability density function of $X$ is $f(x) = \frac{1}{2^{64}}$), what is the distribution of $Y = X \bmod k$?
My gut says it's uniformly distributed over $M = [0, k)$ (i.e., the pdf of $Y$ is $f(y)=\frac{1}{k}$) but I can't quite sort the math to get me there.
Your gut is right in the limit of $n \to \infty$ in $K = [0,2^n)$ but slightly wrong for finite $n$ (which is $64$ as posed in the question). (Which is why you are having trouble proving the uniform distribution -- it is not quite true.)
The point is that up and not including to $\left \lfloor \frac{2^{64}}k \right\rfloor$ there are an equal number of instances of each value of $Y$. But in the interval $\left \lfloor \frac{2^{64}}k \right\rfloor \leq k < 2^{64}$ there is one instance of each number $n : 0 \leq n < 2^{64} - \left \lfloor \frac{2^{64}}k \right\rfloor$ and no instances equal to or greater than $ 2^{64} - \left \lfloor \frac{2^{64}}k \right\rfloor$.
So the distribution looks almost uniform; it is flat up to $2^{64} -\left \lfloor \frac{2^{64}}k \right\rfloor$ then takes a tiny step downward and remains flat thereafter. But that is not a uniform distribution.