If we have a equivalence relation $R=_{def} \{((x_1,y_1),(x_2,y_2)) ~~| ~~x_1-y_1=x_2-y_2 \} \subseteq \mathbb{R}^2 \times \mathbb{R}^2 $
What is the equivalence class $[(0,1)]_R$?
I thought it could be $[(0,1)]_R = \{ x_2 \in \mathbb{R}, y_2 \in \mathbb{R} ~~|~~ x_2-y_2 = -1\} $ But I'm pretty sure that this is mathematically incorrect, isn't it?
Second question: Is $[(0,1)]_R$ a rep system (Don't know the correct word in english) of the relation?
All points on on lines parallel to the line x=y are equivalent to each other.
so {(x,y)| x-y = -1} would indeed be the equivalence class containing (0,1)