I read the article on Infimum and supremum on wiki and came across this example. I am unable to understand Why the infimum of this set should be $-1$. I think it should be zero.
Can anyone help. $$ \inf\left\{ (-1)^n + \frac{1}{n}\bigg|\ n = 1,2,3,... \right\} = -1 $$
This is because, for $n=2k+1$ odd, we have $(-1)^n+\frac{1}{n}=-1+\frac{1}{2k+1}$, and for big $k$ those numbers can get arbitrarily close to $-1$. More rigorously:
Thus $-1$ is the highest lower bound, i.e. infimum of this set.