There is a typo in one of the papers I just read and instead of the known delta function limit
$\lim_{s \to 0}\frac{1}{\pi s} e^{-r^2/s^2}$
it says
$\lim_{s \to 0}\frac{1}{\pi s^2} e^{-r^2/s^2}$
Note the $1/s^2$ instead of the $1/s$. I was wondering what that limit might yield if applied to a proper test function and integrated.
Let $\phi$ a test function such that $\phi(0) = 1$ then $$\frac{1}{\pi s^2} \int_{\mathbb R}e^{-\frac{r^2}{s^2}} \phi(r)dr = \frac{1}{s}\frac{1}{\pi s} \int_{\mathbb R}e^{-\frac{r^2}{s^2}} \phi(r)dr $$ and if $s\rightarrow 0^+$ $$\frac{1}{\pi s} \int_{\mathbb R}e^{-\frac{r^2}{s^2}} \phi(r)dr \rightarrow \phi(0) = 1$$ $$\frac{1}{s} \rightarrow \infty$$ so $$\frac{1}{\pi s^2} \int_{\mathbb R}e^{-\frac{r^2}{s^2}} \phi(r)dr \rightarrow \infty $$ so it doesn't converge.